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Question
1-1 A project is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end
E. A series of tasks or functions that must be completed by a certain date
1-2 A program is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not
available from managing them individually
B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a
project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome
C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired
outcome
D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments
E. The framework project management uses to ensure the completion of
projects
1-3 Project Integration Management:
A. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the
work required to complete the project successfully
B. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the project
C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the
needs for which it was undertaken
D. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the
project are properly coordinated
E. Describes the processes to acquire goods and services from outside the
organization
1-4 Project Scope Management includes which processes:
A. Plan Development
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Performance Reporting
E. Initiation
1-5 The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that
must be applied uniformly on all projects.
A. True
B. False
1-6 An example of a project is:
A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building or facility
D. Providing technical support
E. Providing financial services
1-7 A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:
A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Qualitative & Quantitative Analysis
D. Response Development
E. Monitoring and Control
1-8 Operations and projects share many characteristics.
A. True
B. False
1-9 Which process is not included in Project Cost Management?
A. Resource planning
B. Estimating
C. Budgeting
D. Control
E. Closeout
1-10 The process that is not a part of time management is:
A. Activity Definition
B. Resource Planning
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Sequencing
E. Schedule Control
Answers
Question Answer
1-1 C
1-2 A
1-3 D
1-4 E
1-5 B
1-6 C
1-7 B
1-8 A
1-9 E
1-10 B
Question
2-1 Project Stakeholders are defined as:
A. Individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project
B. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product
C. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively
affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion
D. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources
E. All of the above
2-2 Fast Tracking is defined as:
A. A method of project scheduling
B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization
C. The overlapping of project phases
D. A method of construction
E. A method of defining scope of work
2-3 A project life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by
the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project.
A. True
B. False
2-4 General Management encompasses all except:
A. Finance and accounting
B. Strategic planning
C. Sales and marketing
D. Developing a new product or service
E. Organizational Behavior
2-5 The organization structure that provides the project manager with the most
authority over the project team is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Balance matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Projectized
2-6 Key Management skills include:
A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. Problem solving
E. All of the above
2-7 A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
2-8 Problem solving addresses only the causes of problems on the project.
A. True
B. False
2-9 In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all
deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.
A. True
B. False
2-10 Characteristics of project phases are:
A. Milestones
B. Objectives
C. Activities
D. Deliverables
E. All of the above
Answers
Question Answer
2-1 E
2-2 C
2-3 B
2-4 D
2-5 E
2-6 E
2-7 A
2-8 B
2-9 B
2-10 E
Question
3-1 A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
E. Activity sequencing plan
3-2 _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the
organization to do so.
A. Initiating process
B. Solicitation process
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
E. Controlling process
3-3 ____________ defines and refines the best course of action to attain the objectives
that the project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
E. Resource planning
3-4 Project management process can be organized into:
A. Initiating process
B. Planning process
C. Controlling and executing process
D. Closing processes
E. All of the above
3-5 __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process
E. Initiating process
3-6 _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and
measuring progress regularly to identify variances from the plan so that corrective
action can be taken when necessary.
A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
E. Executing process
3-7 ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to
an orderly end.
A. Punchlist
B. Closing process
C. Project completion checklist
D. Stakeholder buyoff
E. Initiation process
3-8 ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
E. Performance reporting
3-9 The closing process scope includes:
A. Contract closeout
B. Final reporting
C. Punchlist
D. Exit interview
E. Lessons learned
3-10 The core planning processes are:
A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule
development, Activity definition
B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management
C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control
D. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control,
Contract administration
E. Quality planning, Communication planning, Staff acquisition,, Risk
quantification
Answers
Question Answer
3-1 B
3-2 A
3-3 C
3-4 E
3-5 D
3-6 B
3-7 B
3-8 B
3-9 A
3-10 A
Question
4-1 The major processes in project integration management are:
A. Guide project execution, document project planning assumptions, facilitate
communication
B. Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs
C. Project plan development, project plan execution, integrated change control
D. General management, product knowledge, project management information
E. Product knowledge, project execution, facilitate communication
4-2 Tools and Techniques for project plan development include:
A. Project planning methodology, stakeholders skills and knowledge, project
management information system (PMIS)
B. General management skills, project management information systems
C. Organizational procedures
D. Work authorization systems, status review meetings
E. All of the above
4-3 Status review meetings are:
A. Held to notify stakeholders of critical information
B. Regularly scheduled meetings held to exchange information about the project
C. Held to update departmental staff of project status
D. Held only when there is an identified problem
E. None of the above
4-4 ____________ is any documented procedure used to apply technical and
administrative direction and surveillance to identify control and record any changes
to product characteristics.
A. Scope Change Control
B. Schedule Change Control
C. Quality Control
D. Configuration Management
E. Contract Administration
4-5 The project planning methodology is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. Using planning techniques to achieve a desired end goal
B. A structured approach used to guide a project team during development of a
project plan
C. Organizational policies
D. General management skills
E. All of the above
4-6 A ______________ consists of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate,
and disseminate the outputs of the other project management processes.
A. Project management planning system
B. Project controls system
C. Project communication system
D. Project management information system
E. Project organizational policies
4-7 Supporting detail for the project plan includes:
A. Outputs from other planning processes
B. Information/documentation generated during development of the project plan
C. Technical documentation
D. Documentation of relevant standards
E. All of the above
4-8 The project plan is used to:
A. Provide project inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs
B. Guide project execution, document project planning assumptions, and
facilitate communication among stakeholders
C. Provide general management, product knowledge, and project management
information
D. Create organized policies using stakeholders skills and knowledge
E. All of the above
4-9 _____________ are the outcomes of the activities performed to accomplish the
project.
A. Change request
B. Performance reports
C. Work results
D. Additional planning
E. Corrective action
4-10 _________________ is a collection of formal, documented procedures that defines
how project performance will be monitored and evaluated.
A. Concurrent engineering
B. Lessons learned
C. Change control system
D. Project charter
E. Configuration management
4-11 Assumptions generally involve:
A. A degree of risk
B. Involvement from stakeholders
C. Financial controls
D. Historical information
E. Lessons Learned
4-12 ______________ are applicable restrictions that will affect project performance
A. Organizational policies
B. Performance guidelines
C. Constraints
D. Additional planning requirements
E. None of the above
4-13 _______________ is a formal, approved document used to manage and control
project execution
A. Project plan
B. Organizational policies
C. Organizational procedures
D. Work authorization system
E. Configuration management
4-14 _______________ is a document or collection of documents that should be
expected to change over time as more information becomes available about the
project.
A. Status report
B. Additional work authorizations
C. Project monitoring plan
D. Change request
E. Project plan
4-15 _______________ is the primary process for carrying out the project plan.
A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Project charter
D. Project control execution
E. Project schedule
Answers
Question Answer
4-1 C
4-2 A
4-3 B
4-4 D
4-5 B
4-6 D
4-7 E
4-8 B
4-9 C
4-10 C
4-11 A
4-12 C
4-13 A
4-14 E
4-15 B
Question
5-1 One of the major project scope management processes is:
A. Resource planning
B. Initiation
C. Source selection
D. Performance reporting
E. Contract closeout
5-2 The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions is:
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
E. All of the above
5-3 _____________ is the process of formally recognizing that a new project exists or
that an existing project should continue into its next phase.
A. Project Scheduling
B. Strategic planning
C. Initiation
D. Project verification
E. Scope management
5-4 The _____________ documents the features and functions that characterize a
product or service.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Product scope
D. Scope statement
E. Work breakdown structure
5-5 The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are:
A. Product analysis
B. Project schedule development
C. Expert judgment
D. Project budget
E. Work breakdown structure
5-6 An output of scope definition is:
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Corrective action
E. Formal acceptance
5-7 The _____________ are typically defined in terms of the merits of the product and
can cover the full range of possible management concerns.
A. Resource breakdown structures
B. Change requests
C. Project selection criteria
D. Performance measurements
E. Project deliverables
5-8 Outputs from the initiation process are:
A. Project charter
B. Project manager identified/assigned
C. Constraints
D. Assumptions
E. All of the above
5-9 Project selection criteria cover management concerns such as:
A. Financial return
B. Market share
C. Public perception
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
5-10 An input to the scope planning process is:
A. Product description
B. Project schedule
C. Strategic plan
D. Historical information
E. Product documentation
5-11 _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project includes
all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project
successfully.
A. Project plan update
B. Project scope management
C. Scope change control
D. Product description
E. Scope verification
5-12 Scope planning is:
A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders
B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope
D. Planning project milestones
E. A plan to avoid costly changes
5-13 _____________ is formalizing acceptance of the project scope.
A. Project scope
B. Scope verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
E. Scope definition
5-14 The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project
decisions is called:
A. Scope development
B. Scope planning
C. Project development
D. Project selection
E. Project charter
5-15 An output of the scope change control process is:
A. Scope statement
B. Lessons learned
C. Formal acceptance
D. Work breakdown structure
E. Scope management plan
Answers
Question Answer
5-1 B
5-2 A
5-3 C
5-4 C
5-5 C
5-6 A
5-7 C
5-8 E
5-9 D
5-10 A
5-11 B
5-12 B
5-13 B
5-14 B
5-15 B
Question
6-1 Activity definition inputs include all except:
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Historical information
C. Constraints
D. Assumptions
E. Product description
6-2 Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing:
A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates
E. Conditional diagramming methods
6-3 Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following
dependencies
A. Finish-to-start
B. Start-to-start
C. Finish-to-finish
D. Start-to-finish
E. All of the above
6-4 Which process is not included in Project Time Management?
A. Activity definition
B. Activity sequencing
C. Schedule development
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) development
E. Activity duration estimating
6-5 The required inputs for schedule control include all except:
A. Project schedule
B. Performance reports
C. Change requests
D. A schedule management plan
E. Project network diagram
6-6 The likely durations for many categories of activities are available from historical
information that is derived from the following sources except:
A. Commercial duration databases
B. Project files
C. Expert knowledge
D. Team members
E. All of the above
6-7 The resources assigned to them will significantly influence the duration of most
activities.
A. True
B. False
6-8 The _____________ precedence relationship specifies that the "from" activity must
finish before the "to" activity can start.
A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Start-to-finish
D. Finish-to-start
E. None of the above
6-9 A resource pool description provides:
A. The unit cost for each resource
B. What resources will be available, at what times, and in what numbers
C. Performance of the pool resources
D. Duration of the project
E. Resource requirements for each element of the WBS
6-10 Resource leveling heuristics allocates scarce resources to critical path activities
first.
A. True
B. False
6-11 The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:
A. A technique used to predict project duration by analyzing which sequence of
activities has the least amount of float
B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration
C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development
D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and
activity duration estimates
E. All of the above
6-12 The inputs to schedule control include all except:
A. Project schedule
B. Performance reports
C. Schedule management plan
D. Change requests
E. Corrective action
Answers
Question Answer
6-1 E
6-2 C
6-3 E
6-4 D
6-5 E
6-6 E
6-7 A
6-8 D
6-9 B
6-10 A
6-11 A
6-12 E
Question
7-1 _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources
needed to complete project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
E. Budget control
7-2 _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:
A. Computerized tools
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Parametric modeling
E. Vendor bid analysis
7-3 Analogous estimating is a form of __________.
A. Parametric modeling
B. Computerized estimating
C. Expert judgment
D. Bottom up estimating
E. Delphi method
7-4 _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform
project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
E. None of the above
7-5 _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual activities or work
packages in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
E. Budget control
7-6 Which describes how cost variances will be managed?
A. Cost management plan
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate
D. Chart of accounts
E. Cost control
7-7 Which is a time-phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on
the project?
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
C. Cost management plan
D. EAC
E. Chart of accounts
7-8 _____________ is another term for top down estimating.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
E. Work packages
7-9 _____________uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to predict
costs.
A. Parametric modeling
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Rule of thumb
E. Template estimating
7-10 ______________ are the costs incurred in accomplishing the work performed in a
given time period.
A. Budgeted cost of work performed (earned value)
B. Actual cost of work performed (actual costs)
C. Budget cost of work scheduled (planned value)
D. Budget at completion
E. Estimate at completion
7-11 _________________ is the sum of the budgets for work accomplished in a given
time period.
A. Budgeted cost of work performed (earned value)
B. Actual cost of work performed (actual costs)
C. Budgeted cost of work scheduled (planned value)
D. Budget at completion
E. Estimate at completion
7-12 _______________________ is the sum of the total budget for a project.
A. Budgeted cost of work performed (earned value)
B. Actual cost of work performed (actual costs)
C. Budgeted cost of work scheduled (planned value)
D. Budget at completion
E. Estimate at completion
7-13 __________________ is the sum of the budgets for all work packages scheduled
to be accomplished in a given period of time.
A. Budgeted cost of work performed (earned value)
B. Actual cost of work performed (actual costs)
C. Budgeted cost of work scheduled (planned value)
D. Budget at completion
E. Estimate at completion
7-14 _______________________ is the expected cost of a project based on actual
project performance to date.
A. Budgeted cost of work performed (earned value)
B. Actual cost of work performed (actual costs)
C. Budgeted cost of work scheduled (planned value)
D. Budget at completion
E. Estimate at completion
7-15 Cost control is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies
E. Expert judgment
Answers
Question Answer
7-1 B
7-2 B
7-3 C
7-4 A
7-5 C
7-6 A
7-7 A
7-8 A
7-9 A
7-10 B
7-11 A
7-12 D
7-13 C
7-14 E
7-15 A
Question
8-1 _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy
the needs for which it was undertaken.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality standards
C. Process control
D. Project quality management
E. Project management control
8-2 _____________ identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and
determines how to satisfy them.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Process control
E. Total Quality Management
8-3 _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with
relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Process control
E. Total Quality Management
8-4 The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade.
Grade is:
A. A system to measure operational planning techniques
B. A category for quality improvement
C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different
requirements for quality
D. A check list for quality management techniques
E. A report from quality audits
8-5 An output from the quality planning process is:
A. Quality improvements
B. Quality management plan
C. Acceptance decisions
D. Process adjustments
E. Rework
8-6 A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as
the project objectives is:
A. Control charts
B. Quality tolerance checklist
C. Scope statement
D. Product description
E. Process adjustments
8-7 _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of
other projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a
standard by which to measure performance.
A. Process adjustments
B. Operational definitions
C. Benchline parameters
D. Benchmarking
E. Quality tolerance checklist
8-8 A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is:
A. CPM
B. Flowchart
C. Bar chart
D. Network diagram
E. XY diagram
8-9 A(n) __________ definition describes, in very specific terms, what something is,
and how it is measured by the quality control process.
A. Operational
B. Process control
C. Quality policy
D. Hierarchical system model
E. Product
8-10 The quality management processes do not include:
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Overall change control
E. None of the above
8-11 _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to
provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Process control
E. Total Quality Management
8-12 Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project,
and the _____________ of the project.
A. Quality, schedule
B. Objectives, organization
C. Management, product
D. Customer requirements stakeholders
E. Requirements, deliverables
8-13 The tools and techniques used for quality planning include all but:
A. Comprehensive checklists
B. Benefit/cost analysis
C. Flowcharting
D. Benchmarking
E. Design of experiments
8-14 _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with
regard to quality, as formally expressed by top management.
A. Top-down reporting
B. Project management procedure
C. Quality policy
D. Quality assurance
E. Quality control
8-15 Quality is defined as:
A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy
stated or implied needs
B. Verifying the customers requirements are met
C. Meeting the project quality checklist without flaws
D. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget
E. None of the above
8-16 An input to the quality assurance process is:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Quality management plan
C. Product description
D. Standards and regulations
E. Checklists
8-17 _____________ is a statistical method that helps identify which factors might
influence specific variables.
A. Critical path method
B. Contemporaneous scheduling
C. Design of experiments
D. Benchmarking
E. System flowcharts
8-18 _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to
verify that a set of required steps has been performed.
A. Process control model
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Checklist
D. Project plan
E. Operational management plan
Answers
Question Answer
8-1 D
8-2 A
8-3 C
8-4 C
8-5 B
8-6 C
8-7 D
8-8 B
8-9 A
8-10 D
8-11 B
8-12 C
8-13 A
8-14 C
8-15 A
8-16 B
8-17 C
8-18 C
Question
9-1 Topics that deal with people include:
A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with others
B. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to
dealing with people
C. Team building, dealing with conflict, and other subjects dealing with groups
D. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and
safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human
resource function
E. All of the above
9-2 What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
E. Stakeholder analysis
9-3 Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:
A. Team-building activities
B. General management skills
C. Role and responsibility assignments
D. Rewards and recognition systems
E. Training
9-4 A graphic display of resource usage hours is:
A. Organizational chart
B. Responsibility matrix
C. WBS
D. Histogram
E. Bar chart
9-5 Constraints that impact organizational planning do not include:
A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining agreements
D. Expected staff assignments
E. Preferences of the project management team
9-6 Staffing requirements do not define:
A. Types of competencies required
B. Time frames required
C. Types of individuals or groups required
D. Type of resource planning required
E. All of the above
9-7 When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the
selection of a staff
A. Previous experience
B. Staff age
C. Availability
D. Personal interest
E. Personal characteristics
9-8 Performance improvements include all but:
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team competencies
D. Improvements in team capabilities
E. Improvements in individual competencies
9-9 Inputs to Team Development include all but
A. Project staff
B. Reward and recognition systems
C. Performance reports
D. Project plan
E. External feedback
9-10 A RAM is defined as:
A. Random access memory
B. Responsibilities and methods
C. Responsibility assignment matrix
D. Rapid air movement
E. None of the above
Answers
Question Answer
9-1 E
9-2 A
9-3 C
9-4 D
9-5 A
9-6 D
9-7 B
9-8 A
9-9 B
9-10 C
Question
10-1 _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and
appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage, and ultimate
disposition of project information.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality standards
C. Process control
D. Project quality control
E. Project communication management
10-2 ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in
a timely manner.
A. Executive management updates
B. Project status reports
C. Information distribution
D. Process control
E. Total Quality Management
10-3 ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize
phase or project completion.
A. Project plan completion model
B. Performance reporting
C. Administrative closure
D. Process control
E. Information distribution
10-4 Communication technology factors that may affect the project include:
A. Length of the project
B. The immediacy of the need for information
C. The availability of technology
D. Expected project staffing
E. All of the above
10-5 The communication management plan is a document that provides:
A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store information
B. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content,
and conventions/definitions to be used
C. Production schedules showing when each type of communication will be
produced
D. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as
the project progresses and develops
E. All of the above
10-6 Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including
project meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked
electronic databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is
called:
A. Project controls
B. Project information management systems (PIMS)
C. Informational distribution systems
D. Project distribution systems
E. All of the above
10-7 _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress.
A. Performance reviews
B. Status reviews
C. Weekly progress meetings
D. Progress informational update meetings
E. Audits
10-8 _____________ can be shared by team members and stakeholders through a
variety of methods including manual filing systems, electronic text databases,
project management software, and systems which allow access to technical
documentation.
A. Informational retrieval systems
B. Informational distribution systems
C. Project records
D. Project informational systems
E. Database project control programs
10-9 ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance
information in order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources
are being used to achieve project objectives.
A. Monthly update reports
B. Executive top-down reporting
C. Performance reviews
D. Performance reporting
E. All of the above
10-10 The tools and techniques for performance reporting are:
A. Performance reviews
B. Variance analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. Earned value analysis
E. All of the above
Answers
Question Answer
10-1 E
10-2 C
10-3 C
10-4 E
10-5 E
10-6 C
10-7 A
10-8 A
10-9 D
10-10 E
Question
11-1 Which is a process included in Project Risk Management:
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk monitoring and response control
E. All of the above
11-2 Inputs to Quantitative Risk Analysis do not include:
A. Stakeholder risk tolerance
B. Identified risks
C. List of prioritized risks
D. Historical information
E. Expert judgment
11-3 Tools and techniques used in Quantitative Risk analysis include:
A. Interviewing
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Simulation
E. All of the above
11-4 Outputs to Risk Response Planning do not include:
A. Residual risks
B. Contingency reserve amounts
C. Contractual agreements
D. Risk response plan
E. Corrective action plan
11-5 For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean:
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
E. 426
11-6 Simulations typically use what kind of technique to analyze the behavior or
performance of a system?
A. Expected monetary value
B. Decision trees
C. Monte Carlo
D. Statistical sums
E. Expert judgment
11-7 What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event
should occur:
A. Risk response plan
B. Project plan
C. Corrective action plan
D. Contingency plan
E. All of the above
11-8 Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key
suppliers. It has been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one
week late for the next scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of
the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this has happened before
on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event occurring:
A. $3,500
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
E. $10,000
11-9 Tools and techniques for Risk Response Planning do not include:
A. Avoidance
B. Expert judgment
C. Transference
D. Mitigation
E. Acceptance
11-10 Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:
A. Checklists
B. Risk assessment
C. Assumption analysis
D. Interviewing
E. Documentation reviews
11-11 Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %,
and the probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the
probability the project will have scope changes and not be terminated?
A. 13 %
B. 6 %
C. 100 %
D. 72 %
E. 2 %
11-12 Which is not an input to Risk Identification:
A. Historical information
B. Risk management Plan
C. Project planning outputs
D. Risk categories
E. Checklists
Answers
Question Answer
11-1 C
11-2 D
11-3 E
11-4 E
11-5 C
11-6 E
11-7 A
11-8 C
11-9 B
11-10 B
11-11 D
11-12 E
----------------------------
Question
12-1 Project Procurement Management includes:
A. Procurement planning
B. Solicitation planning
C. Source selection
D. Solicitation
E. All of the above
12-2 Which is not an input to Procurement Planning:
A. Scope statement
B. Contract
C. Product description
D. Market conditions
E. Constraints
12-3 Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection:
A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
E. Independent estimates
12-4 The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes,
and payment requests.
A. True
B. False
12-5 In the PMBOK project procurement management is discussed from the
perspective of the _____________ in the project:
A. Owner
B. Buyer
C. Seller
D. Stakeholder and the vendor
E. Supplier
12-6 Which of the following is not included in the Procurement Management Plan?
A. What type of contract(s) will be used
B. A detailed list of qualified sellers
C. How procurement will be coordinated with other project aspects
D. Who will prepare independent estimates and when
E. How multiple providers will be managed
12-7 Contract close-out contains:
A. Contract documentation
B. Procurement audits
C. Contract file
D. Formal acceptance and closure
E. All of the above
12-8 Inputs to contract administration do not include:
A. Contract
B. Change requests
C. Work results
D. Seller invoices
E. Market conditions
12-9 The process of receipt of bids or proposals and the application of evaluation
criteria to select a provider is called:
A. Procurement planning
B. Source selection
C. Contract administration
D. Procurement planning
E. Scope planning
12-10 _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract
Administration:
A. Contract change control system
B. Contract negotiation
C. Payment system
D. Performance reporting
E. None of the above
Answers
Question Answer
12-1 E
12-2 B
12-3 C
12-4 A
12-5 B
12-6 B
12-7 E
12-8 E
12-9 B
12-10 B
-------------------------
Question
13-1 You find out that a fellow PMP lied about his years of experience on his
application for PMP certification. You decide to overlook it because he is a
friend of yours. You are in violation of the responsibility to:
A. Report possible violations of the code of conduct to PMI.
B. Cooperate with PMI concerning ethics violations.
C. Comply with ethical standards governing professional practice.
D. Support and disseminate the PMP Code of Professional Conduct to other
PMPs.
13-2 Your client wants you to do some work for him that is not specified in your
company’s contract with him. To establish good will with the customer, you
decide to go forward with the work, and not inform your company about it.
Would this action be considered to be:
A. Conflict of interest
B. Dishonest representation of information
C. Failure to satisfy the scope of professional services
D. An act of impropriety
13-3 You download information from a presentation authored by a colleague and use it
in your presentation without crediting her. You are in violation of the
responsibility to:
A. Provide accurate information.
B. Recognize and respect intellectual property of others.
C. Offer true information to the PMI.
D. Disclose conflict of interest.
13-4 A client has told you that his company is in extreme financial difficulties, but tells
you to keep it under your hat. You decide to tell your sales manager. You are in
violation of the responsibility to:
A. Disclose conflict of interest.
B. Provide accurate information.
C. Protect intellectual property of others.
D. Respect confidentiality of sensitive information.
13-5 On your PMP Application, in order to meet the 4,500 hours of experience
requirement, you lie about the number of months you spent on a project. You are
in violation of the responsibility to:
A. Provide accurate information.
B. Cooperate with PMI concerning ethics violations of the PMP Code of
Conduct.
C. Provide accurate advertising.
D. Support and disseminate PMP Code of Conduct.
13-6 For Christmas, you give your government client a leather brief case.
You are in violation of the responsibility to:
A. Comply with the law.
B. Comply with regulations.
C. Provide accurate information.
D. Protect conflict of interest.
13-7 In providing a resume in support of a company proposal to a potential client, you
lie about your experience in a specific knowledge area. You are in violation of
the responsibility to:
A. Cooperate with PMI concerning ethics violations.
B. Disclose to clients significant circumstances that result in an appearance of
impropriety.
C. Ensure conflict of interest does not compromise the legitimate interests of
a client.
D. Provide accurate and truthful representations in preparation of estimates of
services.
13-8 You are asked by the PMI to provide information concerning the
violation of the PMP Code of Professional Conduct by your best friend. To save
the friendship, you refuse to provide any information: You are in violation of the
responsibility to:
A. Provide accurate information.
B. Cooperate with the PMI concerning ethics violations.
C. Comply with laws governing professional practice.
D. Report violations to PMI.
Answers
Question Answer
13-1 A
13-2 C
13-3 B
13-4 D
13-5 A
13-6 B
13-7 D
13-8 B
----------------------------------------
Question 2
1. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area
A. Communications Management
B. Procurement Management
C. Change Control Management
D. Project Integration Management
E. Scope Management
2. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________
product or service.
A. Unique, temporary
B. Significant, necessary
C. Organized, profitable
D. Temporary, unique
E. None of the above
3. Possible socio-economic-environnmental influences on the project include
A. Budgetary considerations
B. Internationalization
C. Activity based costing
D. Matrix organization
E. Life cycle management
4. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to
experience the highest resource usage?
A. Initial phase(s)
B. Intermediate phase(s)
C. Closing phase(s)
D. Phase IV
E. Staffing phase(s)
5. Which is not a facilitating process?
A. Solicitation planning
B. Procurement planning
C. Quality planning
D. Communications planning
E. Resource planning
6. Core processes:
A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the
project
B. Have clear dependencies that require them to be performed in essentially the
same order
C. Dependencies are dependent on the nature of the project
D. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project
E. Are defined as those processes involved in monitoring, measuring, and taking
corrective action
7. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control to
assess whether variances from the plan require corrective action?
A. Organizational procedures
B. Performance reports
C. Project plan updates
D. Performance measurement
E. Configuration Management
8. The project plan:
A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in
response to an approved scope change
B. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones
C. Provides the baseline against which changes will be controlled
D. Includes assumption, but not constraints
E. All of the above
9. Change control requests:
A. Must be relayed in writing
B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled
C. Are always initiated externally
D. Are inputs to integrated change control
E. Are outputs of integrated change control
10. _________ is the formal procedure for approving project work.
A. Work-authorization system
B. Organizational procedures
C. Status review
D. Organizational policies
E. Project planning
11. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in project plan execution to
exchange information about the project?
A. PM Information system
B. Work-authorization system
C. Status review meeting
D. Organizational procedures
E. General management skills
12. Which scope management process is the progressive elaboration and
documentation of the project work that produces the product of the project?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope definition
D. Scope verification
E. Scope change control
13. Project Scope Management is:
A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is
included in order to complete the project successfully
B. The features to be included in a product or service
C. Is synonymous with change control management
D. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders
E. Processes required to properly coordinate the various elements of the project
14. Which of the following is an output of the initiation process that provides the project
manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities?
A. Project charter
B. Constraints
C. Alternatives identification
D. Assignment of the PM
E. Assumptions
15. The lowest level of the WBS is referred to as the ______________, especially in
organizations that follow earned value management practices:
A. Control account
B. Code of accounts
C. Summary level task
D. Work Package
E. Deliverable
16. Stakeholder acceptance is crucial to what phase of the scope management
process?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Implementation
D. Scope improvement
E. Scope verification
17. An activity has an optimistic duration estimate of 2 days, a mostly likely estimate of
5 days, and a pessimistic estimate of 8 days. What is the weighted average
duration?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 5.2
D. 5.5
E. 6
18. Which method allows for loops or conditional branches?
A. PERT
B. PDM
C. GERT
D. ADM
E. CDM
19. Each box is an activity; the number it contains is the duration of the activity in days.
The duration of the critical path is:
A. 16 days
B. 19 days
C. 14 days
D. 20 days
E. 22 days
20. A method of shortening the duration of the project by doing activities in parallel is:
F. Lead
G. Creating milestones
H. Fast tracking
I. Leveling
J. Earned Value Management
21. Which is a tool or technique used in the schedule development process to calculate
theoretical early and late start and finish dates for all project activities?
A. Resource pool description
B. Mathematical analysis
C. Duration compression
D. Activity duration estimates
E. Analogous estimating
22. Which type of cost estimate is based on the WBS?
A. Top-down
B. Parametric
C. Rolling
D. Bottom-up
E. Analogous
23. Using the chart below, what is the budget variance?
A. $ 2,000
B. $ 5,000
C. $ 3,000
D. - $ 2,000
E. - $ 3, 000
24. Which process is used cost budgeting to allocate overall cost
estimates to individual work items?
A. Cost-estimating tools and techniques
B. Cost estimates
C. Resource planning
D. Cost budgeting
E. Cost control
25. Cost estimating is:
A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or service
B. Developing an approximation of the cost of the resources needed to complete
project activities
C. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performance
D. Analyzing positive and negative variances
E. None of the above
26. Earned Value is:
A. The amount of future value of a present investment
B. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rate
C. A component of the initial feasibility study
D. BCWS – ACWP
E. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished
27. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12 interest is:
A. $ 1,702.00
B. $ 4,702.00
C. $ 4,982.00
D. $ 5,287.00
E. $ 5,394.00
28. Which of the following is a tool and technique that can be used in the
quality assurance process to identify lessons learned that could improve
performance of the project?
A. Benefit/cost analysis
B. Flow charting
C. Quality audits
D. Benchmarking
E. Cost of quality
29. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces.
The process has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will
weigh between 7.5 and 8 ounces?
A. 23.87
B. 31.74
C. 34.13
D. 68.26
E. 95.46
30. What is the primary motivational tool of quality Theory X?
A. Zero defects promotional campaign
B. Use of the quality circle
C. Transferred responsibility
D. Financial compensation [Slide 9-32]
E. Benchmarking
31. Which of the following is part of modern quality management?
A. Using Zero Defects as a motivation technique
B. Considering 95 percent of quality costs the
responsibility of management
C. Addressing both the project management and the
product
D. Relying on frequent inspection
E. Tracing 80 percent of defects can be traced back to 20
percent of the workforce
32. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost?
A. Rework
B. Recall
C. Rejects
D. Scrap
E. None of the above
33. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, a person who is
attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which needs?
A. Esteem
B. Self-Actualization
C. Physiological
D. Social
E. None
34. Which of the following is an input to the team development process
that describes the technical context within which the team will operate?
A. Management staffing plan
B. Performance reports
C. Project staff
D. External feedback
E. Project plan
35. In a weak matrix the project manager's authority is likely to be:
A. Non-existent
B. Low
C. Limited
D. Medium to high
E. High
36. Which theory specifies hygienic conditions as an important employee
motivator?
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. McGregor's
D. Hertzberg's
E. Maslow's
37. Dual reporting is most likely to occur in which type of organization?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Laissez-faire
E. None of the above
38. Which of the following is an input to the information distribution
process used to establish the methods that will be used to gather and store types of
information?
A. Work results
B. Project plan
C. Constraints
D. Communication management plan
E. Assumptions
39. Which is the process that involves gathering, generation, and
disseminating information in order to provide stakeholders with information about
how resources are being used to achieve project objectives?
A. Communications planning
B. Information distribution
C. Scope acceptance
D. Performance reporting
E. Administrative closure
40. _________________ specifies to whom information will flow and what
method will be used to distribute various types of information.
A. Collection and filing structure
B. Communications requirements
C. Distribution structure
D. Constraints
E. None of the above
41. Which of the following processes is used in Risk Management to
determine which risks might affect the project and documenting their characteristics?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk qualitative analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk response planning
E. Risk response monitoring and control
42. Risk response development is one of the _______________
processes
A. Planning core processes
B. Planning facilitating processes
C. Executing facilitating processes
D. Controlling core processes
E. Controlling facilitating processes
43. Using the figure below, what is the probability that the task will be completed on time
and under budget?
A. 12.5 %
B. 16.25 %
C. 25.0 %
D. 90.0 %
E. None of the above
44. Using a contractor to perform a high-risk task is which form of risk
response?
A. Insurance
B. Assumption
C. Alternative
D. Transference
E. Mediation
45. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPIF
B. FPI
C. FFP
D. CPFF
E. CPPC
46. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPIF
B. FPI
C. FFP
D. CPFF
E. CPPC
47. Which is a document used to ask for a price and a method of meeting
requirements?
A. IFB
B. RFP
C. RFQ
D. Invitation for negotiation
E. All of the above
48. Which is a process used in Procurement Management to document
product requirements and identify potential sources?
A. Solicitation planning
B. Procurement planning
C. Source selection
D. Contract administration
E. Contract closeout
49. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposals is
A. Negotiations
B. Solicitation
C. Bidders' conference
D. Illegal
E. None of the above
50. A guarantee imposed by law in a sale even though the seller may not
make any explicit promises is
A. Solicitation
B. Guarantee
C. Implied warranty
D. Buyer's warranty
E. Caveat
Answers
Question Answer
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 B
5 E
6 B
7 D
8 C
9 D
10 A
11 C
12 B
13 A
14 A
15 D
16 E
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 C
21 B
22 D
23 E
24 D
25 B
26 E
27 E
28 C
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 E
33 C
34 E
35 C
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 C
41 A
42 B
43 B
44 D
45 C
46 E
47 B
48 A
49 C
50 C
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